In order to even begin trying to formulate an answer to this question, we have to examine the word "individuality," and how "society" (or rather, societal influence) affects that "individuality."

First we distinguish two individualities: we suppose that there is an individuality that is apparent to one's self, and then there is the individuality which is realized through others. To make this distinction clear, an example might be appropriate. A person looks inside himself, and says, "I am an individual, a distinct person, who is kind, loving, somewhat temperamental, but in totality, normal. I also like to eat my fries in a certain way, I like to watch and listen to different kinds of music, etc." This is the individuality which is apparent to one's self. Each person conceives of this individuality for himself. However, there is the "individuality" which is also formed by society. In other words, what is the role that I play in society? To what part of my environment do I belong? This is the individuality which is "given" to each person.

So there is another question which is tangent to the question of, "Has each person lost his individuality?" That question is, "Does society have a hand in each person's individuality, and if so, can it take that individuality away? Or only a part of it away?" In this sense, we have partially answered the former question. Society gives a particular type of individuality to each person, but can society be also the cause of our "losing" that individuality? Do we lose the inward individuality that we conceive for each of us?

In other words, do those two individualities somehow manage to come together to form a single individuality, which is taken away by society? Or do they remain separate indefinitely? The answer may lie in the extent to which we own those individualities. For instance, if I don't think of something as mine, but it exists within my sphere of "property," is it mine? If I do not think of myself as something else, was I ever that something else? So, if I have never ascribed something as part of my individuality, did that individuality ever pertain to me?

A person can't exist as an individual without first having the opposite end, namely, being a part of a group or category (a unit). In other words, we can never lose our individuality if a part of that individuality is given to us by societal influences. If you take a distinct object as an example, such as an egg, you will see this relationship. The egg is in itself a distinct, individual object. It exists as an egg whether you break it (now called a cracked or broken egg) and when you have done something with it (as in, scrambled eggs, boiled egg, etc.). It retains itself throughout these transformations, though it becomes a part of something larger than itself (it can be a unit in an egg dish, for example). Likewise, each person's individuality exists as so. The person may have a membership in certain groups or interactions, but that individuality still exists because those groups and interactions can now help define that individuality. Thus, societal influences do not necessarily lead to a loss of individuality.

Learn more about this author, Joan Inong.
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