There are 52 articles on this title. You are reading the article ranked and rated #8 by Helium's members.
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| Yes | 49% | 470 votes | Total: 959 votes | |
| No | 51% | 489 votes |
First of all, open and honest communication is the lifeblood of any relationship.
Therefore also the more increasingly open and honest, and thus the closer a relationship is supposed to be, the more integral and vital openness and honesty are in a relationship, lest anything to the contrary makes a disingenuous falsehood of any claims of openness and honesty, and no relationship is at least supposed to be more freely open and honest, and therefore also closer, than a husband and wife relationship.
So should a wife feel free to tell her husband anything (including about her "romantic past)?
Let me ask you, ladies, do you truly love yourself at all?
Now please bear with me, because "there is a method to my madness".
Also, before you go ahead and "jump" at that question, stop and think about the following questions, lest you both contradict and "hang" yourself with your own heart and mind, even before your husband (if you're a married woman), or any woman's husband, or any woman's potential husband, has a chance to be a real man of a winner by being loving, wise, and understanding (a.k.a. "get it right"), or be a real something of a loser by being a self-hating, foolish, pharisaic hypocrite (a.k.a. "get it wrong").
Again, ladies, do you truly love yourself at all? Examples:
Would you disrespect yourself (not love yourself) by letting others also "dis" you as in "treat you like a doormat, and walk all over you" without any objection in any way, shape, manner, or form (including, if you are a religious pacifist, "praying that they be 'reached/taught a lesson'"), or would you respect yourself (love yourself) at least enough so that you would have others also respect you instead of "treating you like a doormat"?
How about if a wife somehow learns perhaps indirectly (through anyone else except her husband) that he told anyone else except her (be they a "bowling buddy", or whatever, or even any other woman) that he is holding anything against himself and/or any woman (or women) in his past; thus, because of that, he's been letting such things from his past limit and determine his relationships now (including their marriage), such as in his deciding against such openness and honesty towards her, his wife, now; thus also in that, and any number of other ways, he is also making both her and their marriage relationship pay for anything in his past?
First, would she not be hurt? Yes, of course she would be hurt. Would there not actually have been previous "sings" and hurts as evidence
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