by Valentine Logar

Created on: January 28, 2008   Last Updated: January 05, 2009

First let me say that I am taking this argument only from a Biblical Christian standpoint, or should I say based on this standpoint. My arguments that Homosexuality is a naturally occurring condition within the human gene pool is based on scientific evidence, historical evidence, and Biblical evidence. Nature is a marvelous and diverse thing, if you are religious, I can only say that God does not make mistakes.

Sin, the concept is staggering that one would intentionally transgress Gods moral laws. But is Homosexuality in fact a deliberate transgression? How does modern society determine this is the truth? Homosexuality has been a part of every society since man began to record and preserve history. Different societies have treated homosexuality much differently, some treating it as normal while others, such as our own treating it as an aberration.
In truth, a historical study would show globally and historically homosexuality has been an accepted part of nearly all societies. It was not until the Christian Emperor Theodosius I, on August 6, 390 passed a law against passive homosexuality that things begin to change in the Western world. With this law he condemned passive homosexuals be burned at the stake. It wasn't until the year 558 that Justinian passed a law condemning the active partner as well.

Matthew 19:12: For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.

The Biblical quote above is the only reference in the New Testament that could be construed as Jesus discussing directly homosexuality. Given the issues of language and translation errors, the only possible rendition of this passage would be an acknowledgement that homosexuals are born and thus a natural part of humankind. It is important to note that this passage follows a discussion regarding marriage and is in direct response to why not all men are fit to marry women. If homosexuality were indeed sin, as religious authorities would have us believe why then is there no direct discussion by Jesus of this "unnatural and sinful act". Why is the only point of reference by Jesus directly the above? Many good Christians will take offense at what I have written, I understand their anger I have been down this path before. I am aware of all the Biblical arguments and can quote them, the issue

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