1 of 12

Write now Article Tools

Page 3 of 3

For those still concerned about the date of "time immemorial", taking all this into account, when was it?

The Christians only really seemed to catch up with the problems associated with the lack of zero in the Roman calculations of Dionysius when, in the 15th Century, the Spanish finally banished the Moors who did have a zero in their mathematics.

So, although technically 1189 is 1188 years after 1 A.D. it remains recognised as 1189. As previously noted, at the time in question, Spain, Portugal, Aragon, Valencia, Castile, Portugal and sundry duchies, grand duchies, principalities and kingdoms conformed to the Spanish Era not the edict arising from the Synod of Whitby by 1189.

Accordingly, the date may vary by a year either way depending on the variables in calculation; where it is made, which Indiction and which calendar are used.

The Quo Warranto Act of 1290 that established "time immemorial" as "the time beyond legal memory" is vague on the precise beginning of "time immemorial". It refers merely to a time: "since the time of King Richard". While this was taken to mean the beginning of reign of King Richard, the Act itself was not that specific.

So while the 3rd September 1189 is notable for the accession of Richard the Lionheart to the throne of the Angevin Empire and the adopted date of "time immemorial" there is no certainty as to the exact date. All that can actually be said with any certainty is it was a Sunday.

Learn more about this author, Omnia.
Click here to send this author comments or questions.

• << previous page
• 1
• 2
• 3

Add your voice

Know something about Teaching history: Why use BCE and CE instead of BC and AD?
We want to hear your view. Write now!